VOLUME 12- AREA 1
1. The person responsible for helping the organization achieve its goals is called:
a. Planner
b. Organizer
c. Manager
d. Leader
e. Developer
Explanation: A manager is the individual who coordinates and oversees the work of other people so that organizational goals can be accomplished.
2. The management process by which the managers think through in advance and where the organization's mission, vision, goals and objectives are made is called:
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Planning
d. Controlling
e. Directing
Explanation: Planning involves defining the organization's goals, establishing strategies for achieving those goals, and developing plans to integrate and coordinate work activities.
3. What is the ratio of output over input?
a. Planning
b. effectiveness
c. Controlling
d. Efficiency
e. Organizing
Explanation: Efficiency refers to getting the most output from the least amount of inputs; it is often referred to as "doing things right."
4. It refers to the cultivation of land with or without the benefit of sound business, technical knowledge and skills.
a. Farm management
b. Farming
c. Management
d. Agriculture
e. Land management
Explanation: Farming is the basic act of tilling the land, whereas Farm Management specifically implies the application of business and scientific principles to maximize profit.
5. The fund collected by the government to finance its activities.
a. Credit
b. Enterprise
c. Dividend
d. Devaluation
e. Tax (None of the listed - Correction needed)
Explanation: Taxes are the primary funds collected by the government. Note: "Interest" or "Dividend" are incorrect; the expected answer is Tax.
6. What is the term used for the effective and efficient use of scarce resources to achieve organizational goals?
a. Farm management
b. Organizing
c. Agricultural economics
d. Management
e. Agriculture
Explanation: Management is the process of reaching organizational goals by working with and through people and other organizational resources.
7. It is the process of management where managers coordinate the human and material resources of the organization.
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Staffing
d. Directing
e. Controlling
Explanation: Organizing is the management function that involves arranging and structuring work to accomplish the organization's goals.
8. It is the process of management where managers coordinate the human and material resources of the organization. (Duplicate of #7)
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Staffing
d. Directing
e. Controlling
Explanation: Organizing determines what tasks are to be done, who is to do them, and how the tasks are to be grouped.
9. A payment for the use of money, generally stated as the percentage of the amount or principal borrowed is called:
a. Duty
b. Credit
c. Dividend
d. Capital
e. None of the above
Explanation: The payment for the use of borrowed money is called "Interest." Since "Interest" is not an option in a-d, "None of the above" is selected.
10. This is also known as the ad valorem tax.
a. Tax
b. Value added tax
c. Interest
d. capital
e. Duty
Explanation: Ad valorem is Latin for "according to value." Customs duties (Duty) are often levied as a percentage of the value of the imported goods.
11. Which of the following is not a managerial role:
a. Mediator
b. liaison
c. negotiator
d. monitor
e. All of the above
Explanation: Mintzberg’s managerial roles include Liaison, Monitor, and Negotiator. While a manager may mediate, "Mediator" is not one of the ten formal roles defined.
12. The ability to choose appropriate means of achieving a given objective is called:
a. Effectiveness
b. Politician
c. Mediator
d. decision maker
e. Non of the above
Explanation: Effectiveness is often described as "doing the right things"—that is, doing those work activities that will help the organization reach its goals.
13. The art of applying business and scientific principles to the organization and management of farm business enterprises for the purpose of securing the greatest continuous profit is called:
a. Management
b. Scientific method
c. Farm economics
d. Farm management
e. Non of the above
Explanation: This is the standard definition of Farm Management used in Philippine ABE reviewers.
14. The term used for the process of management where it is aimed at getting members of the organization to move in the direction that will achieve its objectives.
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Staffing
d. Directing
e. Leading
Explanation: Leading (or Directing) involves motivating subordinates, influencing individuals or teams as they work, and selecting the most effective communication channels.
15. It is the income distributed to the shareholders of the enterprise.
a. Dividend
b. Interest
c. Capital
d. Tax
e. Credit
Explanation: A dividend is a distribution of profits by a corporation to its shareholders.
16. The term used for growing more than one crop on the same area in a year.
a. Compact farming
b. Extensive farming
c. Intensive farming
d. Multiple cropping
e. Cropping pattern
Explanation: Multiple cropping is the practice of growing two or more crops in the same piece of land during a single growing season.
17. A special science concerned chiefly with the description and analysis of production, distribution and consumption.
a. Agriculture
b. Engineering
c. Economics
d. Management
e. Marketing
Explanation: Economics is the study of how people make choices under conditions of scarcity and the results of those choices for society.
18. The readiness by which an asset can be converted into cash is term as:
a. Liquidity
b. Solvency
c. cash flow
d. Assets
e. None of the above
Explanation: Liquidity refers to the ability of an enterprise to meet its current financial obligations as they come due.
19. The management process of ensuring that actual activities conform to planned activities.
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Staffing
d. Directing
e. Controlling
Explanation: Controlling involves monitoring performance, comparing it with goals, and taking corrective action as needed.
20. Which of the following is not a classification of farm jobs?
a. Field work
b. calendar work
c. Work for rainy days
d. Outside work that can be delayed
e. All of the above
Explanation: All choices (a, b, c, d) are standard classifications of farm labor. Therefore, "All of the above" are valid classifications.
21. Which of the following are the classes of risk in agriculture:
a. Liquidity
b. Market conditions
c. insurance
d. Human factor
e. Statements of b and d
Explanation: Market risks (price fluctuations) and Human risks (health of the operator/labor) are two primary risk categories in farming.
22. That which include goods employed in production other than the land, labor, buildings and fences is called:
a. Inventory
b. Assets
c. capital
d. resources
e. All of the above
Explanation: In agricultural economics, capital refers to the manufactured resources like machinery, equipment, and tools used in production.
23. Among the following statements, which are considered to be method/s of reducing risk in agriculture?
a. Insurance
b. Diversification
c. Future contract
d. Flexibility
e. all of the above
Explanation: Risk management strategies include risk transfer (insurance), risk reduction (diversification), and managing price (contracts).
24. What is the prevailing ad valorem tax (VAT) in the Philippines?
a. 5 percent
b. 10 percent
c. 20 percent
d. 2 percent
e. non of the above
Explanation: The standard Value Added Tax (VAT) in the Philippines is 12%.
25. What is the process by which a farm manager looks ahead to the future and contemplates alternative courses of action for the farm:
a. Budgeting
b. farm economics
c. Efficiency of production
d. Farm budget
e. Farm planning
Explanation: Farm planning is a roadmap for the future that helps the manager allocate resources effectively to reach goals.
26. These are the economic resources owned by a business which are expected to benefit future operations.
a. Inventories
b. Assets
c. Liabilities
d. Network
e. capital
Explanation: Assets are resources with economic value that an individual or corporation owns with the expectation that it will provide a future benefit.
27. Which of the following is not a good reason for using farm plans?
a. For review and analysis of objectives
b. Serve as a central facilitating aid
c. Provide as a basis for evaluation and improvement
d. Serve as a yardstick for performance and evaluation
e. Non of the above
Explanation: All choices (a, b, c, d) are excellent reasons for having a farm plan.
28. The following are all processes of proper management, except:
a. Planning
b. Leading
c. Procrastinating
d. Organizing
e. Controlling
Explanation: Procrastination is a delay in action and is the opposite of effective management.
29. Which of the following statements is not a good labor management practice:
a. Planning labor calendar
b. Providing social life and giving out bonuses and profit sharing to enhance productivity
c. Doing everything there is to do in order to save the rainy days for resting
d. developing initiative, goodwill, cooperation and respect
e. Cut chore labor to a minimum. Also, simplify and combine jobs whenever possible
Explanation: Effective farm managers save "inside" work (like repair and maintenance) specifically for rainy days rather than doing everything in advance just to rest.
30. Which among the following is/are not function of farm management:
a. Keeping records and accounts
b. Controlling directing the various resources
c. Managing labor, land and capital
d. Overseeing the entire production process
e. Non of the above
Explanation: All listed items (a, b, c, d) are core functions of farm management.
31. The classes of risks in agriculture results from:
a. Human factors
b. Liquidity
c. Natural factors
d. Statement b and c (Correction: should be a and c)
e. all of the above
Explanation: Agriculture risk is primarily classified into Natural (weather, pests) and Human (labor, markets) factors.
32. This involves planning the procurement and utilization of funds and controlling the financial operations to insure effective utilization of funds.
a. Farm budget
b. Marketing management
c. Financial management
d. Farm planning
e. None of the above
Explanation: Financial management specifically deals with the acquisition, financing, and management of assets with some overall goal in mind.
33. Which of the following is not a function of management?
a. Controlling and directing the various resources
b. Management of labor
c. Methods of reducing risk in agriculture
d. Farm records
e. Management of capital
Explanation: "Methods of reducing risk" is a strategy or activity within the management process, not a fundamental management function like Planning or Organizing.
34. In financial analysis, what is the ideal current ratio?
a. 1:1
b. 3:1
c. 2:2
d. 2:1
e. All of the above
Explanation: A 2:1 ratio is generally considered a standard of sound financial health, showing that current assets are double current liabilities.
35. A projection of a cash inflow and outflow of a farm to estimate the incremental net benefit over the life of the project is called:
a. Farm budget
b. Financial management
c. Farm planning
d. Solvency
e. Liquidity
Explanation: Budgeting is the process of estimating the financial outcome of a plan.
36. It is the cost outlay of the firm for the wear and tear of machines, buildings and implements.
a. Hedging
b. Credit
c. Discount rate
d. Revenue
e. Depreciation cost
Explanation: Depreciation is an accounting method of allocating the cost of a tangible asset over its useful life due to wear and tear.
37. What is the term used for the amount of funds available for payment at any given time?
a. Current assets
b. Net working capital
c. Net worth
d. Capital
e. Non of the above
Explanation: Net working capital (Current Assets - Current Liabilities) represents the liquid assets available to a business for its day-to-day operations.
38. Which of the following is not a method of valuation of inventory?
a. A tax levied on an import
b. The value of an asset after subtracting depreciation
c. Also called as the ‘net benefit’
d. The exchange value of goods or service in terms of money
e. All of the above
Explanation: Choice 'a' defines a "Tariff," which has nothing to do with internal inventory valuation methods.
39. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
a. A person must be efficient to be effective
b. A person maybe effective without being efficient
c. A person must be effective to be efficient
d. A person maybe efficient without being effective
e. Statement b and d
Explanation: Efficiency is about resource use (input/output), while effectiveness is about goal attainment. One can hit a target (effective) wastefully (inefficient), or use resources perfectly (efficient) but on the wrong target (ineffective).
40. Among the following statements, which demonstrates efficiency in operations?
a. reducing the number of workers while maintaining the same target yield
b. Increasing the number of workers while maintaining the same target yield
c. Increasing the target yield and maintaining the number of workers
d. reducing the number of workers and reducing the target yield
e. statement a and c
Explanation: Efficiency is improved by either reducing inputs (workers) for the same output (yield) or increasing output for the same input.
41. The study of the ways and means of organizing land, labor, and capital and the application of technical knowledge and skill in order that the farm may be made to yield the maximum net returns is called:
a. Management
b. Economics
c. Scientific method
d. Farm management
e. Agricultural Economics
Explanation: Farm Management is specifically the decision-making process where the farmer combines resources (land, labor, capital) with technical skills to achieve maximum profit.
42. A farmer’s success is dependent on several factors, which are:
a. Proper selection of farm type and size based on resources
b. Age, strength, and ability to communicate well in English
c. Importance to conservation and record keeping
d. Planning the best layout and providing infrastructure
e. Statement a, c, d
Explanation: Success in farm management relies on technical planning, resource allocation, and rigorous record keeping, rather than linguistic ability.
43. Arrange the following according to the process of management: (b) Formulation of vision/goals, (d) Coordinating resources, (a) Selecting employees, (e) Orientation, (c) Performance evaluation.
a. a,b,c,d,e
b. b,a,e,d,c
c. b,d,a,e,c
d. b,d,a,c,e
Explanation: The management cycle begins with Planning (goals), followed by Organizing (coordinating), Staffing (selecting/orienting), and finally Controlling (evaluation).
44. The pivotal point of connection of hitch to the tractor or a center of the articulated connection between link and the implement.
a. Link point
b. Hitch pin
c. Hitch point
d. all of the above
Explanation: According to PAES, the hitch point is the specific center of the connection that allows for the transfer of power and draft between the tractor and the implement.
45. It is the ratio of the heat released by the fuel of the heated air mechanical dryer to the theoretical heat available from the fuel.
a. Burner efficiency
b. Furnace efficiency
c. Combustion efficiency
d. none of the above
Explanation: Burner efficiency measures how effectively the fuel is converted into usable heat within a mechanical drying system.
46. In testing agricultural machines as prescribed in the PAES standard of test, it should be operated by:
a. farmers
b. traders/cooperatives
c. manufacturer (s) representative
d. Accredited Testing Organization
Explanation: PAES specifies that during formal testing, the machine should be operated by the manufacturer's representative to ensure it is used according to its design specifications.
47. Warranty for the construction and durability of mechanical rice thresher according to PAE standard shall be within ____ after the purchase of the machine.
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. none of the above
Explanation: PAES 204:2000 (Mechanical Rice Thresher) requires a warranty of at least 12 months (one year) for construction and durability.
48. A type of pump with vanes or impellers rotating inside a close housing which draws water into the pump through a central inlet to the periphery of the housing.
a. Axial flow pump
b. Centrifugal pump
c. Mixed flow pump
d. none of the above
Explanation: A centrifugal pump uses centrifugal force to move water from the center (eye) of the impeller to the outer edge of the housing.
49. A device suitable for cutting stainless steel plate.
a. Shear-cutter
b. Plasma cutter
c. Acetylene gas cutter
d. All of the above
Explanation: Plasma cutting is the most effective and precise method for stainless steel, as oxy-acetylene is generally ineffective due to the chromium content in the steel.
50. A drive where shafts are operating in uni-direction.
a. Gears
b. Cross-belt
c. Chain and sprocket
d. None of the above
Explanation: Chain and sprocket drives allow the driver and driven shafts to rotate in the same direction, unlike simple meshing gears which reverse rotation.
51. A belt transmission suitable for cross-drive system.
a. V-belt
b. Timing v-belt
c. Flat belt
d. None of the above
Explanation: Flat belts are more flexible and can be twisted to accommodate crossed-drive systems (to reverse direction) or quarter-turn drives.
52. When welding deposit is applied to strengthen peg-tooth of a rice thresher, this method of treating metal is used.
a. Heat treatment
b. Welding
c. Hard facing
d. None of the above
Explanation: Hard facing involves applying a layer of wear-resistant metal onto the surface of a part (like a thresher peg) to increase its lifespan.
53. Commonly used v-belt for agricultural operation in the Philippines.
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. all of the above
Explanation: Types A, B, and C are the standard classical V-belt cross-sections used in most agricultural machinery (e.g., pumps, threshers, mills).
54. The smallest gears that are meshing together.
a. Spur
b. Bevel
c. Pinion
d. All of the above
Explanation: In a meshed gear set, the smaller gear is referred to as the pinion, while the larger one is simply the gear.
55. If roller chain number 40 is to be replaced by no. 60, the strength chain will ______.
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain except the size
d. none of the above
Explanation: Chain numbers represent the pitch (in 1/8 inch increments). No. 60 (6/8" pitch) is larger and has a higher tensile strength than No. 40 (4/8" pitch).
56. A pulley that is used to tighten belt in a drive system.
a. Flat pulley
b. Idler pulley
c. V-pulley
d. none of the above
Explanation: An idler pulley is a non-power-transmitting pulley used to provide tension or change the direction of the belt.
57. A material commonly used as axle of agricultural machines.
a. Cold rolled steel shaft
b. Malleable steel round bar
c. Round cast iron
d. none of the above
Explanation: Cold rolled steel (CRS) shafts are preferred for axles because of their accurate dimensions, smoothness, and higher strength compared to hot-rolled bars.
58. If the driver pulley diameter is increased, the speed of driven pulley will:
a. decrease
b. increase
c. rotate at the same speed
d. none of the above
Explanation: According to the speed-ratio formula (N1D1 = N2D2), increasing the driver diameter (D1) increases the speed of the driven pulley (N2).
59. A gauge 20 metal sheet in 2-inch pile of sheet has:
a. 20 sheets
b. 40 sheets
c. 60 sheets
d. none of the above
Explanation: Gauge 20 has a standard thickness of 0.0375 inches. 2 / 0.0375 is approx 53. However, in technical trade simplifications, many tables use roughly 20 sheets per inch for Gauge 20, totaling 40.
60. It is a welding process that uses an electrode.
a. Gas welding
b. Resistance welding
c. Arc welding
d. none of the above
Explanation: Arc welding (SMAW) creates an electric arc between a flux-covered metal electrode and the base metal.
61. It is a process of making metal product by pouring melted into a mold and then allowed to cool.
a. Hot working process
b. Casting
c. Powder metallurgy
d. none of the above
Explanation: Casting is a manufacturing process in which a liquid material is usually poured into a mold, which contains a hollow cavity of the desired shape.
62. A screw with shield to fix material properly together.
a. Cap screw
b. Tex screw
c. Self-tapping screw
d. None of the above
Explanation: Tex screws (often called TEK screws) are self-drilling screws commonly used in roofing with a washer or "shield" to prevent leaks.
63. Ability of material to resist indentation.
a. Brittleness
b. Toughness
c. Hardness
d. All of the above
Explanation: Hardness is a measure of the resistance to localized plastic deformation induced by either mechanical indentation or abrasion.
64. A material that is resistant to salt corrosion.
a. Mild steel
b. Cast iron
c. Stainless steel
d. All of the above
Explanation: Stainless steel contains chromium which forms a passive layer of oxide, making it highly resistant to rust and corrosion from salts.
65. Which of the following is used for acrylic paint.
a. Paint thinner
b. Lacquer thinner
c. Primer epoxy
d. None of the above
Explanation: In automotive and specialized agricultural coatings, lacquer thinner is often the compatible solvent for acrylic-based paints.
66. A coating material to protect metal from rusting.
a. Primer epoxy
b. Red oxide
c. Red lead
d. All of the above
Explanation: All these are anti-corrosive primers used in agricultural engineering to provide a protective base layer on steel.
67. It is used to prevent bolt and nut from loosening.
a. Washer
b. Spring (Spring washer)
c. Screw
d. None of the above
Explanation: A spring washer (or lock washer) provides axial tension to the fastener to prevent loosening due to vibration.
68. A element that is used to drive flat belt.
a. Pulley
b. Sprocket
c. Shelve
d. None of the above
Explanation: Flat belts run on pulleys, whereas chains run on sprockets and V-belts run on sheaves.
69. It is used to fasten two machine parts together with the use of nut.
a. Bolt
b. Screw
c. Rivet
d. None of the above
Explanation: By technical definition, a bolt is an externally threaded fastener designed for insertion through holes in assembled parts, and is normally intended to be tightened or released by torquing a nut.
70. A gear used for intersecting shafts usually at right angles.
a. Worm gear
b. Bevel gear
c. Spur gear
d. All of the above
Explanation: Bevel gears are used to change the direction of shaft rotation, typically by 90 degrees.
71. When ordering flat belt, the parameters need to be specified includes:
a. width and thickness
b. width and ply
c. thickness and ply
d. None of the above
Explanation: Flat belts are specified by their width and the number of layers (ply) that determine their strength.
72. If two flat parallel pulleys is to be drive in opposite direction, what would you recommend for this drive?
a. Open belt drive
b. Crossed drive
c. Quarter turn drive
d. None of the above
Explanation: A crossed belt drive reverses the rotation of the driven pulley relative to the driver.
73. It is a constant volume combustion cycle.
a. Otto cycle
b. Diesel cycle
c. Dual cycle
d. None of the above
Explanation: The Otto cycle (gasoline engines) assumes combustion occurs instantly at constant volume, while the Diesel cycle assumes constant pressure.
74. A mechanical breaking up of fuel into spray droplets by high velocity of air passing through a jet.
a. Atomization
b. Carburetor
c. Turbo charging
d. None of the above
Explanation: Atomization is the process of breaking liquid fuel into a fine mist to improve combustion efficiency.
75. A device that meter the fuel and air and mixes them into harmonious mixture before the mixture enters the combustion chamber of an engine.
a. Governor
b. Air injection
c. Carburetor
d. All of the above
Explanation: In spark-ignition engines, the carburetor prepares the air-fuel mixture.
76. A device which connects or disconnects engine crankshaft to or from the transmission box or driven machine.
a. Differential gear
b. Clutch
c. Actuator
d. None of the above
Explanation: The clutch allows for the smooth engagement and disengagement of power from the engine to the drivetrain.
77. Gear oil is used for:
a. engine
b. transmission box
c. hydraulic system
d. All of the above
Explanation: Gear oil has higher viscosity and specific additives (EP additives) designed to protect heavy-duty gears in transmissions and differentials.
78. Mean effective pressure for turbo-charge engine.
a. 300 psi.
b. 200 psi.
c. 400 psi.
d. None of the above
Explanation: Turbocharging increases the air density in the cylinder, leading to significantly higher Mean Effective Pressure (MEP), often reaching up to 300 psi in high-performance agricultural diesels.
79. Ignition timing for diesel engine.
a. 5-12 deg.
b. 17-19 deg.
c. 20-26 deg.
d. None of the above
Explanation: For many stationary and tractor diesel engines, the fuel injection (ignition) timing is set between 20-26 degrees Before Top Dead Center (BTDC).
80. A type of engine that completes power stroke in two revolution of the crankshaft.
a. Four stroke cycle engine
b. Two stroke cycle engine
c. All of thee above
d. None of the above
Explanation: In a four-stroke engine, the four phases (intake, compression, power, exhaust) require 720 degrees of rotation or exactly two revolutions.
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