VOLUME 7- AREA 2
1. A barrier place in stream to constrict the flow of water and cause it fall over a crest usually used to measure discharge.
a. flume
b. weir
c. gabion
d. staff gage
Explanation: A weir is a small dam-like structure used to measure the flow of water in open channels.
2. What is the effect of the presence of extensive vegetation in a watershed?
a. reduce peak runoff rates
b. increases infiltration capacity
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Explanation: Vegetation slows down surface runoff, allowing more time for water to infiltrate the soil and reducing the peak flow.
3. Type of rainfall caused by the upward lifting of the air mass due to a mountain.
a. Convective rainfall
b. Frontal rainfall
c. Orographic rainfall
d. Cyclonic rainfall
Explanation: Orographic rainfall occurs when moist air is forced to rise over a topographic barrier like a mountain range.
4. What do you call the mountain side, with reference to the wind direction, in which the air mass passing through it is cold and dry?
a. wayward
b. windward
c. Trade wind
d. Leeward
Explanation: The leeward side is protected from the wind and typically experiences a "rain shadow" effect where air is drier.
5. Graphical representation of instantaneous runoff against time.
a. hydrograph
b. monograph
c. log-probability graph
d. hytograph
Explanation: A hydrograph plots the discharge (runoff) of a stream over time.
6. The capacity of rainfall (precipitation) to effect the detachment and transport of soil particles.
a. erodibilty
b. effectivity
c. erosivity
d. conductivity
Explanation: Erosivity refers to the potential of rain to cause erosion, whereas erodibility refers to the soil's susceptibility to that erosion.
7. Removal of soil by water from small but well defined channels when there is concentration of overland flow.
a. stream channel erosion
b. rill erosion
c. gully erosion
d. sheet erosion
Explanation: Rills are small, well-defined channels that can be smoothed out by normal tillage; gullies are larger and more permanent.
8. It is the time required for water to flow from the most remote point of the watershed to the outlet.
a. time to peak
b. recession time
c. lag time
d. time of concentration
Explanation: Time of concentration (Tc) is a fundamental parameter in peak runoff estimation.
9. When is the best/recommended time to sample sediment load in the stream?
a. Intermittent flow
b. Peak flow
c. Base flow
d. Perennial flow
Explanation: Sediment transport is highest during peak flow events when the water's energy and velocity are greatest.
10. In discharge measurement, the readings in a staff gage are useless without this:
a. synthetic hydrograph
b. unit hydrograph
c. rating curve
d. matching curve
Explanation: A rating curve establishes the relationship between the stage (height) and the actual discharge (volume/time).
11. In the Soil Conservation method (curve number method), if the Curve number is 100, this indicates that:
a. rainfall = runoff
b. runoff = 0
c. rainfall is less than runoff
d. rainfall is highly erosive
Explanation: A CN of 100 represents a completely impervious surface where no infiltration occurs.
12. A supercritical flow is a flow condition where:
a. Fr = 1
b. Fr > 1
c. Fr < 1
d. Fr > 4000
Explanation: In open channel hydraulics, Froude number (Fr) > 1 indicates rapid, supercritical flow.
13. The rate of decrease of temperature with the increase in elevation is called:
a. updraft
b. convection rate
c. lapse rate
d. deflection rate
Explanation: The environmental lapse rate describes how air temperature drops as altitude increases.
14. The USLE is method of computing soil erosion. What type of soil erosion does it estimated?
a. sheet erosion only
b. sheet, rill and gully erosion
c. sheet and rill erosion only
d. all types of erosion
Explanation: The Universal Soil Loss Equation (USLE) was designed for sheet and rill erosion; it does not account for gully or bank erosion.
15. Type of flow wherein the discharge or flow in a prismatic channel is constant with respect to time.
a. laminar flow
b. uniform flow
c. steady flow
d. critical flow
Explanation: Steady flow means parameters (like discharge) at any point do not change over time.
16. In frequency analysis, most hydraulic processes, more or less, follow this process. This process is governed by chance and time dependent. What type of process is this?
a. Deterministic Process
b. Probabilistic Process
c. Stochastic Process
d. Hydrolistic Process
Explanation: Stochastic processes involve both a random component and a time-dependent structure.
17. Water in the stream:
a. runoff
b. stream flow
c. discharge
d. all of the above
Explanation: These terms are often used interchangeably to describe water moving through a surface channel.
18. Water absorption by the soil surface:
a. overland flow
b. percolation
c. infiltration
d. inter flow
Explanation: Infiltration is the entry of water into the soil profile from the surface.
19. Water movement into deep groundwater reservoirs:
a. percolation
b. infiltration
c. stream flow
d. capillary rise
Explanation: Percolation refers to the downward movement of water through the soil and rock layers to the groundwater table.
20. Main input of water to the earth’s surface:
a. precipitation
b. virga
c. clouds
d. all of the above
Explanation: Precipitation (rain, snow, etc.) is the primary source of water for the land surface.
21. The ozonosphere which absorbs much ultraviolet light from the solar spectrum is a layer within the:
a. troposphere
b. stratosphere
c. mesosphere
d. thermosphere
Explanation: The ozone layer is located in the stratosphere, protecting the earth from harmful UV radiation.
22. The earth’s albedo is about:
a. 0.10
b. 0.20
c. 0.30
d. 0.40
Explanation: Albedo is the reflectivity of the earth; roughly 30% of incoming solar radiation is reflected back into space.
23. The region of occurrence of most weather in the atmosphere:
a. troposphere
b. stratosphere
c. mesosphere
d. thermosphere
Explanation: The troposphere is the lowest layer where air is densest and weather phenomena occur.
24. With temperature inversion there is:
a. isothermal condition
b. negative lapse rate
c. positive lapse rate
d. neutral temperature condition
Explanation: Usually temperature decreases with height; an inversion is the "inverse," where it increases with height.
25. Rising air motion results from:
a. cooling of isolated air parcel
b. horizontal air divergence
c. air passing over the leeside of mountain
d. none of the above
Explanation: Rising air is usually caused by heating (convection), horizontal convergence, or being forced up a mountain (orographic).
26. On a weather map, the line representing places of the same air pressure is:
a. isohyet
b. isotherm
c. isobar
d. isogon
Explanation: Isobars connect points of equal atmospheric pressure.
27. A portion of precipitation which the land cannot absorb or retain in the surface:
a. interception
b. evaporation
c. runoff
d. infiltration
Explanation: Runoff is the excess water that flows over the land surface.
28. A geologic formation which may contain large quantities of water but which does not permit movement of water at rates sufficient to support large springs or justify the development of well:
a. aquifer
b. aquiclude
c. aquifuge
d. dam
Explanation: An aquiclude (like clay) contains water but has low permeability, making it poor for wells.
29. A graph that plots the measured stream flow discharge vs. water surface elevation:
a. hygrograph
b. hydrograph
c. rating curve
d. hyetograph
Explanation: Also known as a stage-discharge curve.
30. An overflow or inundation from a river or other body of water:
a. runoff
b. precipitation
c. storm
d. flood
Explanation: A flood occurs when water exceeds the capacity of its channel.
31. The process of determining the stage height, storage volume, and outflow from a reservoir or a stream reach from a particular inflow hydrograph:
a. flood routing
b. basin
c. flooding
d. none of the above
Explanation: Routing predicts how a flood wave changes as it moves through a system.
32. Precipitation type resulting from heating of the ground surface that causes warming of the air and local strong vertical air motions:
a. cyclonic
b. convective
c. orographic
d. none of the above
Explanation: Convective precipitation is typical in tropical areas and summer afternoons.
33. A technique used to check the consistency of rainfall records of a station:
a. normal ratio method
b. double mass analysis
c. arithmetic mean method
d. Thiessen method
Explanation: Double mass curves are used to identify shifts in rainfall data due to changes in instrumentation or station location.
34. In hydrograph analysis, the time from which the concentration curve begins until the direct runoff reaches zero:
a. time base
b. time of concentration
c. rainfall duration
d. standard duration of rain
Explanation: The time base is the total duration of the direct runoff portion of the hydrograph.
35. The hydrograph of one unit of direct runoff from a storm of specified duration:
a. runoff hydrograph
b. storm hydrograph
c. unit hydrograph
d. any of the above
Explanation: A unit hydrograph represents 1 inch (or unit) of excess rainfall over a basin.
36. The level to which groundwater rises:
a. water table
b. zone of aeration
c. zone of saturation
d. vadose zone
Explanation: The water table is the upper surface of the zone of saturation.
37. Particle density is the ratio of mass of the dry soil to the:
a. bulk volume
b. pore volume
c. Soil volume
d. Air-filled pore volume
Explanation: Particle density considers only the volume of solid particles, excluding pore spaces.
38. The recommended pressure variation in the lateral between the first and the last sprinkler is:
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
Explanation: Keeping pressure variation below 20% ensures a high uniformity of water application.
39. The soil property which is not affected by tillage and soil management but is dependent on the soil mineralogy and organic matter content.
a. Bulk density
b. Particle density
c. porosity
d. void ratio
Explanation: Tillage changes the arrangement of particles (bulk density), but not the density of the individual particles themselves.
40. A hydrograph shows the relationship with time of:
a. flow velocity
b. flow depth
c. flow discharge
d. none of the above
Explanation: Discharge (Q) is plotted on the vertical axis against Time (t) on the horizontal axis.
41. The best hydraulic section of a canal is characterized by:
a. minimum area for a given discharge
b. least wetted perimeter for a given area
c. applicable only to non-erodible channel
d. all of the above
Explanation: A section with the least wetted perimeter has the minimum frictional resistance, allowing for maximum discharge.
42. The coefficient of discharge for a weir includes correction for the effects of:
a. physical characteristics of the weir
b. acceleration due to gravity
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Explanation: The discharge coefficient ($C_d$) accounts for both the physical geometry of the weir and the theoretical velocity effects.
43. The removal of soil by water from small but well-defined channels or streamlets when there is a concentration of the overland flow.
a. sheet erosion
b. rill erosion
c. gully erosion
d. streambank erosion
Explanation: Rill erosion is characterized by small channels that can be removed by normal tillage operations.
44. A type of drainage system where laterals meet the main line at only one side.
a. random
b. natural
c. gridiron
d. herringbone
Explanation: In a gridiron system, laterals enter the main from only one side, whereas in herringbone, they enter from both sides.
45. The International Soil Science Society describes sand as a soil particle with the diameter of:
a. 0.02 to 2 mm
b. 0.2 to 2mm
c. 0.002 to 0.02 mm
d. 0.002 to 0.2 mm
Explanation: Under the ISSS system, sand ranges from 0.02 mm to 2.0 mm.
46. subsurface drain system wherein laterals join the submain on both sides alternately.
a. gridiron
b. herringbone
c. parallel drain system
d. double main system
Explanation: The herringbone system is used where the submain lies in a depression.
47. The localized lowering of the static or piezometric water level due to pumping.
a. groundwater decline
b. draw down
c. subsidence
d. depression
Explanation: Drawdown is the difference in height between the static water level and the pumping water level.
48. It’s a geologic formation which transmits water at a rate insufficient to be economically developed for pumping.
a. aquifer
b. aquiclude
c. aquifuge
d. aquitard
Explanation: An aquitard is a saturated but poorly permeable stratum that restricts groundwater movement.
49. An artesian well is a:
a. hand-pumped well
b. free-flowing well
c. well-tapping a confined aquifer
d. well tapping an unconfined water
Explanation: An artesian well taps into a confined aquifer where the water is under pressure.
50. Ten cubic meters per hour is equal to:
a. 2.78 lps
b. 44.03 gpm
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
Explanation: $10 m^3/hr \div 3.6 = 2.78 L/s$. $10 m^3/hr \approx 44.03 Gallons\ per\ minute$.
51. The rate of movement of water from a level of soil surface into the soil.
a. permeability rate
b. hydraulic rate
c. intake depth
d. infiltration rate
Explanation: Infiltration rate is the velocity at which water enters the soil at the surface.
52. Clay soil has a diameter range of:
a. more than 2 mm
b. more than 0.02 mm
c. .2 - .02 mm
d. less than .002 mm
Explanation: Clay particles are the smallest soil separates, defined as less than 0.002 mm in diameter.
53. The most accurate method of measuring soil moisture is the:
a. tensiometer
b. electrical resistance meter
c. neutron scattering
d. gravimetric
Explanation: The gravimetric method (oven-drying) is the direct standard against which all other methods are calibrated.
54. ________ is the artificial application of water into the soil.
a. Irrigation
b. Drainage
c. Rainfall
d. Runoff
Explanation: Irrigation is the controlled application of water for agricultural purposes.
55. The amount of soil porosity in a medium-textured soil is:
a. highest
b. lowest
c. moderate
d. between moderate and highest
Explanation: Medium-textured soils like loams typically have a balanced, moderate porosity.
56. Water that moves freely and drains out of the soil is:
a. hygroscopic water
b. capillary water
c. gravitational water
d. imbibitional water
Explanation: Gravitational water occupies the large macropores and drains under the influence of gravity.
57. One method of erecting perpendicular line is by the use of:
a. stadia
b. odometer
c. 3-4-5 method
d. chaining
Explanation: The 3-4-5 method uses the Pythagorean theorem to ensure a perfect right angle in surveying.
58. A definite point on an object, the elevation and location of which are known is known as:
a. backsight
b. foresight
c. height of instrument
d. benchmark
Explanation: A benchmark (BM) is a permanent reference point for surveying elevations.
59. A _____ of instrument is an intervening point between two benchmarks upon which foresight and backsight readings are taken.
a. turning point
b. backsight
c. foresight
d. height
Explanation: A turning point (TP) allows the surveyor to move the instrument and continue the leveling line.
60. The process of determining the elevations of points at short measured intervals is called:
a. profile leveling
b. differential leveling
c. topographic mapping
d. land leveling
Explanation: Profile leveling is used to determine the ground surface elevation along a specific line, like a road or canal center.
61. The soil tensiometer is accurate near the:
a. wilting point
b. field capacity
c. groundwater
d. soil surface
Explanation: Tensiometers work best in wet soils (high moisture), losing accuracy as the soil approaches the wilting point.
62. H in Hooghoudt’s drain spacing equation is:
a. 3 ft
b. 6 ft
c. 17 ft
d. 5.5 ft
Explanation: This value typically refers to a specific design parameter used in standard drainage calculations in certain contexts.
63. A crop grown between orchard trees or on field between cropping season to protect the land from leaching and erosion.
a. cover crop
b. cash crop
c. companion crop
d. inter-tilled crop
e. relay crop
Explanation: Cover crops provide seasonal protection for the soil when the main crop is not present.
64. A crop which is planted in shortly before the first crop is to be harvested:
a. cover crop
b. cast crop
c. companion crop
d. inter-tilled crop
e. relay crop
Explanation: Relay cropping is a form of multiple cropping where the life cycles of two crops overlap.
65. The scientific name of tobacco is:
a. Brassical oleracea
b. Nicotiana tabacum
c. Nicotiana tartarum
d. Gossypium hirsutum
e. dechantium aristatum
Explanation: Nicotiana tabacum is the most commonly cultivated species of tobacco.
66. A combination of anabolic and catabolic reactions occurring in the body with the liberation of energy.
a. nutrition
b. metabolism
c. digestion
d. excretion
e. respiration
Explanation: Metabolism is the total of all chemical processes in an organism.
67. A technique wherein a young embryo is collected from a donor female parent and then implanted into the uterus of a recipient female parent:
a. artificial insemination
b. random mating
c. embryo transfer
d. mastication
e. multiple ovulation
Explanation: Embryo transfer allows for the multiplication of genetically superior females.
68. The crops used for industrial processing are:
a. sugarcane
b. tobacco
c. castor bean
d. all of the above
Explanation: Industrial crops are grown specifically for non-food industrial applications.
69. Geotropism is response of the plants to gravity. This response is an effect of growth hormone called:
a. auxin
b. gibberellins
c. cytokinins
d. ethylene
Explanation: Auxins redistribute in response to gravity, causing differential growth in roots and shoots.
70. The appearance of a plant with respect a particular character.
a. Phenotype
b. genotype
c. ideotype
d. prototype
Explanation: Phenotype is the observable physical expression of a plant's genetic makeup.
71. The soil tilled when it is saturated with water:
a. wet land or low land preparation
b. Primary tillage preparation
c. Dry land or upland preparation
d. Zero tillage preparation
Explanation: This is common in rice production, often referred to as puddling.
72. From the electromagnetic spectrum, the light quality best absorbed for photosynthesis is:
a. green
b. red
c. blue
d. yellow
Explanation: Chlorophyll absorbs most efficiently in the blue and red wavelengths, while green is reflected.
73. Meat that has not undergone any substantial change from the time of slaughters.
a. meat-by-product
b. hot meat
c. hot bone meat
d. corned meat
e. fresh meat
Explanation: Fresh meat is defined by its lack of processing or curing treatments.
74. Severe reaction that occurs in some individual following introduction of antigens into their bodies:
a. agalactia
b. allergy
c. bulling
d. immunization
e. defecation
Explanation: An allergy is a hypersensitive immune response to a typically harmless substance.
75. The period during which the reproductive organs first become functional.
a. fertilization
b. weaning
c. finishing
d. puberty
e. ovulation
Explanation: Puberty marks the beginning of sexual maturity in animals.
76. The addition of salt with or without nitrate, and sugar for the purpose of lightening shelf life and/or enhancing the development of odor, color and flavor:
a. flaying
b. freezing
c. curing
d. farrowing
e. gelding
Explanation: Curing is a traditional food preservation method using chemical treatments.
77. The scientific name for pigeon:
a. Columbia livia
b. Anser domesticus
c. Gallus gallus
d. Numida meleagris
e. oturnix coturnix
Explanation: Columba livia is the rock dove or common pigeon.
78. The scientific name for sheep:
a. Capra hircus
b. Sus domesticus
c. Bubalus bubalis
d. Ovies aries
e. Camelus dromedaries
Explanation: Ovis aries is the domesticated sheep.
79. The common name for Capra hircus:
a. sheep
b. pig
c. mule
d. horse
e. goat
Explanation: Capra hircus is the domesticated goat.
80. An edaphologist studies the soil in relation to:
a. its genesis
b. to plant growth
c. its capacity to support buildings and structure
d. all of the above
Explanation: Edaphology is the study of how soil influences living things, especially plants.
81. The chemical element in dolomite that is not an important constituent of calcite is:
a. Mg
b. Ca
c. P
d. O
Explanation: Calcite is $CaCO_3$, while dolomite is $CaMg(CO_3)_2$.
82. Which is the seat of chemical activities in the soil?
a. sand
b. silt
c. colloid
d. clay
Explanation: Soil colloids (clay and organic matter) have high surface areas and electrical charges where chemical reactions occur.
83. Which has the highest pH dependent negative charges?
a. OM
b. illite
c. montmorillonite
d. kaolinite
Explanation: Organic Matter (OM) has many functional groups (carboxyl, phenolic) that ionize and create negative charges as pH increases.
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