VOLUME 11 - AREA 1
1. This is the energy from the sun, per unit time, received on a unit area of surface perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the radiation, at the earth’s mean distance from the sun, outside of the atmosphere.
a. 690 W/m2
b. 1100 W/m2
c. 200 W/m2
d. 1353 W/m2
e. nota
Explanation: The solar constant is approximately 1353 W/m² (or 1.353 kW/m²) at the edge of the Earth's atmosphere.
2. It is an instrument used to measure diffuse and direct solar radiation.
a. pyranometer
b. pyrometer
c. pyrheliometer
d. Campbell Stokes
e. nota
Explanation: A pyranometer measures global solar radiation (both direct and diffuse), while a pyrheliometer measures only direct beam radiation.
3. What is the main combustible gas component of biogas?
a. H2
b. CO2
c. CH4
d. N2
e. nota
Explanation: Methane (CH4) is the primary combustible component, typically making up 50-70% of biogas.
4. It is the device that converts solar radiation directly into electrical energy.
a. soleil
b. silicon
c. semiconductor
d. photovoltaic cells
e. nota
Explanation: Photovoltaic (PV) cells convert light energy directly into electricity via the photovoltaic effect.
5. If a two stroke 4-cylinder engine is running at 2000 rpm, the power stroke per minute of the engine is ________.
a. 4000
b. 8000
c. 2000
d. none of the above
Explanation: In a 2-stroke engine, every cylinder has one power stroke per revolution. So, 2000 rpm x 4 cylinders = 8000 power strokes per minute.
6. Conversion of solid fuel into combustible carbon monoxide through thermo-chemical reaction.
a. Digestion
b. Carbonization
c. Gasification
d. Pyrolysis
Explanation: Gasification is the process of converting biomass into a combustible gas (producer gas) through partial oxidation.
7. A substance that is added to the tractor for the purpose of changing traction and stability.
a. Ballast
b. Cage wheel
c. Plow
d. Hydraulic lift
Explanation: Ballast (weights or liquid in tires) is added to increase traction and improve stability.
8. Standard rpm of a tractor PTO drive.
a. 600 rpm
b. 200 rpm
c. 540 rpm
d. None of the above
Explanation: The most common standard PTO speeds are 540 rpm and 1000 rpm.
9. Tractor part that controls the direction of the travel of the machine.
a. Rear wheel
b. Front wheel
c. Steering wheel
d. None of the above
Explanation: While the steering wheel is the input, the front wheels are the mechanical part that directs the travel on standard tractors.
10. The lower PTO speed of standard four-wheel tractor is
a. 540 rpm
b. 450 rpm
c. 640 rpm
d. none of the above
Explanation: Standard PTO speeds are 540 (lower) and 1000 (higher).
11. It is the special arrangement of gears to permit driving member to rotate slower or faster than the other and permit operation of driving wheels at different speed for easy turn.
a. Spur gear
b. Planetary gear
c. Differential gear
d. None of the above
Explanation: The differential allows the outer drive wheel to rotate faster than the inner drive wheel during a turn.
12. It is a gear reduction of the tractor located in the power train between the differential and the driving wheel and transmits power of low speed and large torque to the rear axles and wheels.
a. Differential
b. Universal joint
c. Final drive
d. None of the above
Explanation: The final drive provides the last stage of speed reduction and torque increase before the wheels.
13. It is an indicator of the amount of fuel in a furnace that is converted into heat.
a. Burning efficiency
b. Thermal efficiency
c. Heat utilization efficiency
d. None of the above
Explanation: Burning (or combustion) efficiency measures how completely the fuel is oxidized to release heat.
14. Which of the following is true in operating gasifier for internal combustion engine?
a. Only 50 to 70% of the diesel oil can be replaced by gas producer.
b. Gasoline and diesel can be fueled with gas producer.
c. The power output of gasoline engine at arbitrary rpm will decrease by 30 to 50% when fueled with producer gas.
d. All of the above
Explanation: These are standard performance characteristics of dual-fuel or producer gas converted engines.
15. The primary gas produced during gasification.
a. Methane
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Carbon monoxide
d. All of the above
Explanation: Producer gas primarily consists of Carbon Monoxide (CO), Hydrogen (H2), and Nitrogen (N2).
16. When biogas contains 40% methane and 60% carbon dioxide, _____.
a. the biogas can be used for cooking
b. the biogas can be used for lighting
c. the biogas can run as refrigerator
d. none of the above
Explanation: Biogas typically needs at least 45-50% methane content to be flammable and useful for most applications.
17. A solid biomass fuel burning device used for domestic cooking, water heating, smoking, roasting and simmering.
a. Furnace
b. Cook-stove
c. Biomass oven
d. None of the above
Explanation: A cook-stove is specifically designed for these domestic thermal tasks.
18. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound water by one degree Fahrenheit.
a. kCal
b. BTU
c. Joule
d. None of the above
Explanation: British Thermal Unit (BTU) is defined using pounds and Fahrenheit.
19. Open-fire stove has a thermal efficiency of _________.
a. 3-11%
b. 11-20%
c. 20-30%
d. All of the above
Explanation: Traditional open fires are very inefficient, with most heat escaping to the surroundings.
20. An engine running at a speed of 2000 rpm is classified as ______.
a. low speed engine
b. medium speed engine
c. high speed engine
d. none of the above
Explanation: Engines over 1000-1500 rpm are generally categorized as high-speed engines in agricultural engineering.
21. A quality type of spark plug for gasoline engine.
a. Magnesium-type
b. Platinum type
c. Carbon type
d. None of the above
Explanation: Platinum and Iridium are used for high-quality, long-lasting spark plug electrodes.
22. When operating light equipment, it is recommended to use _______
a. four stroke gasoline engine
b. two stroke gasoline engine
c. four stroke gasoline engine
d. all of the above
Explanation: Two-stroke engines are often preferred for light, portable equipment because they have a higher power-to-weight ratio.
23. When strength is provided beyond what is needed as an extra margin of insurance against parts failure.
a. Factor ignorance
b. Factor of safety
c. Reliability
d. none of the above
Explanation: Factor of Safety (FS) is the ratio of absolute strength to actual applied load.
24. Wind flows on a 2-m diameter rotor at a rate of 2 m/s. suddenly, the wind flows at 4 m/s, what would be the power output of the windmill?
a. four times
b. 6 times
c. 8 times
d. None of the above
Explanation: Power in wind is proportional to the cube of the velocity ($P \propto v^3$). If velocity doubles, power increases by $2^3 = 8$ times.
25. It is a device used to generate high voltage current on small engine needed for spark plug in small engine.
a. Distributor
b. Magneto
c. Contact point
d. All of the above
Explanation: Small engines (like lawn mowers or chainsaws) typically use a magneto ignition system to generate high voltage.
26. It is the utilization of hand tools, implements for draft animals, and mechanically-powered machines for agricultural and development, production, harvesting and on-farm processing.
a. Agricultural development
b. Agricultural mechanization
c. Agricultural machinery and equipment
d. All of the above
Explanation: This is the formal definition of agricultural mechanization.
27. One pferde starke (ps) is equal to _______.
a. 0.986 hp
b. 0.735 kw
c. 75 kgf-m/sec
d. All of the above
Explanation: Metric horsepower (PS) is defined as 75 kgf-m/s, which is approximately 0.735 kW or 0.986 mechanical HP.
28. It is a device used to measure the state of the battery charge of an engine.
a. Tachometer
b. Hydrometer
c. Ohmmeter
d. None of the above
Explanation: A hydrometer measures the specific gravity of the electrolyte, which indicates the state of charge in a lead-acid battery.
29. It is a measure of the area in cubic inches above the piston when it is at the top of its stroke, compared to the area above the piston when it is at the bottom stroke.
a. Piston displacement
b. Compression Ratio
c. Clearance volume
d. None of the above
Explanation: Compression ratio is the ratio of total cylinder volume (BDC) to clearance volume (TDC).
30. Recommended gap or clearance of the contact point of engine
a. 0.010 to 0.020 in.
b. 0.020 to 0.035 in.
c. 0.035 to 0.045 in.
d. None of the above
Explanation: Standard contact point gaps for many small engines fall within this range (often around 0.020").
31. Required water temperature in testing pump.
a. 10 ºC and below
b. 10 ºC - 40 ºC
c. 40 ºC - 60 ºC
d. None of the above
Explanation: Standard pump tests are conducted within this temperature range to ensure consistent water density and viscosity.
32. Power recommended by manufacturer for satisfactory operation under continuous duty condition with specified speed range.
a. Rated brake power
b. Continuous brake power
c. Engine brake horsepower
d. None of the above
Explanation: Continuous brake power is the rating for an engine intended to run for long periods without interruption.
33. Highest power develop by an engine.
a. Peak brake power
b. maximum brake power
c. rated brake power
d. None of the above
Explanation: Maximum brake power is the absolute highest power output the engine can produce.
34. It is the ratio of the weight of the shelled corn kernel collected at all outlet of the Sheller to the weight of the corn kernel input of the Sheller expressed in percent.
a. shelling efficiency
b. shelling recovery
c. shelling index
d. none of the above
Explanation: Shelling efficiency measures how much of the input corn is actually successfully shelled and collected.
35. Applicable key for assembly that hub is fastened on the key fixed on a shaft or assembly that the key is driven between the combined shaft and hub.
a. parallel key
b. woodruff key
c. taper key
d. all of the above
Explanation: Taper keys are driven in to create a tight friction fit between the hub and shaft.
36. Cost that has occurred in the past and has no relevance to estimates of future costs and revenues related to an alternative course of action is referred to as:
a. sunk cost
b. opportunity cost
c. overhead cost
d. life-cycle cost
Explanation: Sunk costs are past costs that cannot be recovered and should not affect current decision-making.
37. At break-even point:
a. total revenue equals total costs
b. profit or loss is zero
c. increasing or decreasing output by 1 unit will result in either profit or loss
d. all of the above
Explanation: The break-even point is the production level where total revenues exactly match total expenses.
38. The term “ceteris paribus” means:
a. Other things held constant
b. Absence of government intervention
c. Scarcity or limited
d. Closed economy
Explanation: Ceteris paribus is a Latin phrase used in economics to isolate the effect of one variable by assuming all other factors remain unchanged.
39. Scarcity in economics refers basically to:
a. Monopolization of existing supplies of goods
b. Monopolization of resources to produce goods
c. Monopolization of outlets to sell goods
d. None of the above
Explanation: Scarcity refers to the fundamental tension between unlimited human wants and limited productive resources.
40. The economic problem “What to produce?” refers to:
a. The amounts and types of commodities produce in an economy
b. The beneficiaries from the choices made in a society
c. The tastes and preferences of economic agents
d. The way in which resources are combined in order to produce the commodities
Explanation: This question addresses the selection of goods and services to be produced given limited resources.
41. The economic problem “How to produce?” refers to:
a. The amounts and types of commodities produce in an economy
b. The beneficiaries from the choices made in a society
c. The testes and preferences of economic agents
d. The way in which resources are combined in order to produce the commodities
Explanation: This refers to the choice of technology and resource combinations (e.g., labor-intensive vs. capital-intensive).
42. The economic problem “For whom to produce?” refers to:
a. The amounts and types of commodities produced in an economy
b. The beneficiaries from the choices made in a society
c. The testes and preferences of economic agents
d. The way which resources are combined in order to produce the commodities
Explanation: This addresses the distribution of the final products among the members of society.
43. Distribution in economics refers to:
a. Retailing, wholesaling and transportation
b. What to Produce
c. How to produce
d. For whom to produce
Explanation: Economic distribution is synonymous with the "For whom to produce" problem.
44. Which of the following best illustrate the notion of economic cost:
a. In the production of corn on a farm, the farmer typically spends for the use of land, labor and capital
b. To watch a movie in Rockwell, one has to spend even more for transport
c. In deciding to spend an evening with friends, one is giving up time that could have been used for studies
d. In eating at the fast food chain, one typically spend anywhere from P60-P80
Explanation: Economic cost includes opportunity cost—the value of the next best alternative given up.
45. Which of the following best describes the term “opportunity cost”?
a. Price paid for goods and services
b. Cost of producing goods and services
c. Value of best foregone alternative
d. Benefits derived from a good or service
Explanation: Opportunity cost is the most desirable alternative given up as the result of a decision.
46. Being on the production possibilities frontier means that:
a. It is possible to produce any more vegetables
b. It is possible to produce more rice
c. More vegetables can be produce only by doing without some rice
d. If the society becomes more productive in producing rice, then we can have more rice but not more vegetables
Explanation: Points on the PPF represent full efficiency; to get more of one good, you must sacrifice some of the other.
47. If the economy is operating inside the production possibilities frontier then:
a. All the resources are use efficiently
b. The economy cannot produce more of one good without giving up more of the other good
c. The economy experienced technical change
d. The resources are not fully utilized in production
Explanation: Operating inside the curve indicates inefficiency, unemployment, or under-utilization of resources.
48. The person responsible for helping the organization achieve its goals is called:
a. Planner
b. Organizer
c. Manager
d. Leader
e. Developer
Explanation: A manager coordinates and oversees the work of others to achieve organizational goals.
49. The management process by which the managers think through in advance and where the organizations mission, vision, goals and objectives are made is called:
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Planning
d. Controlling
e. Directing
Explanation: Planning is the first function of management, involving setting goals and deciding how to achieve them.
50. It refers to the cultivation of land with or without the benefit of sound business, technical knowledge and skills.
a. Farm management
b. Farming
c. Management
d. Agriculture
e. Land management
Explanation: Farming is the basic act of cultivating land; "Farm Management" implies the application of business/technical skills.
51. A payment for the use of money, generally stated as the percentage of the amount or principal borrowed is called:
a. Duty
b. Credit
c. Dividend
d. Capital
e. None of the above
Explanation: The correct term is "Interest," which is not listed as a specific choice (a-d).
52. This is also known as the ad valorem tax.
a. Tax
b. Value added tax
c. Interest
d. capital
e. Duty
Explanation: Custom duties are often ad valorem, meaning they are based on the value of the transaction or property.
53. The art of applying business and scientific principles to the organization and management of farm business enterprises for the purpose of securing the greatest continuous profit is called:
a. Management
b. Scientific method
c. Farm economics
d. Farm management
e. None of the above
Explanation: This is the formal definition of farm management.
54. A special science concerned chiefly with the description and analysis of production, distribution and consumption.
a. Agriculture
b. Engineering
c. Economics
d. Management
e. Marketing
Explanation: Economics is the study of how society manages its scarce resources through production and consumption.
55. The readiness by which an asset can be converted into cash is term as:
a. Liquidity
b. Solvency
c. cash flow
d. Assets
e. None of the above
Explanation: Liquidity describes the efficiency or speed with which an asset can be converted into ready cash without affecting its market price.
56. Which of the following is not a classification of farm jobs?
a. Field work
b. calendar work
c. Work for rainy days
d. Outside work that can be delayed
e. All of the above
Explanation: All choices listed (a-d) are valid classifications used in farm labor planning.
57. That which include goods employed in production other than the land, labor, buildings and fences is called:
a. Inventory
b. Assets
c. capital
d. resources
e. All of the above
Explanation: Capital refers to human-made resources (machinery, tools, etc.) used to produce other goods.
58. Among the following statements, which are considered to be method/s of reducing risk in agriculture?
a. Insurance
b. Diversification
c. Future contract
d. Flexibility
e. all of the above
Explanation: Farmers use insurance, diverse crops, and contracts to mitigate financial and production risks.
59. What is the process by which a farm manager looks ahead to the future and contemplates alternative courses of action for the farm:
a. Budgeting
b. farm economics
c. Efficiency of production
d. Farm budget
e. Farm planning
Explanation: Planning involves forecasting future conditions and preparing alternatives.
60. Which of the following statements is not a good labor management practice:
a. Planning labor calendar
b. Providing social life and giving out bonuses and profit sharing to enhance productivity
c. Doing everything there is to do in order to save the rainy days for resting
d. developing initiative, goodwill, cooperation and respect
e. Cut chore labor to a minimum. Also, simplify and combine jobs whenever possible
Explanation: Proper farm management requires saving indoor/shop tasks for rainy days, not simply resting.
61. Which among the following is/are not function of farm management:
a. Keeping records and accounts
b. Controlling directing the various resources
c. Managing labor, land and capital
d. Overseeing the entire production process
e. Non of the above
Explanation: All listed items (a-d) are core functions of farm management.
62. The classes of risks in agriculture results from:
a. Human factors
b. Liquidity
c. Natural factors
d. Statement a and c
e. all of the above
Explanation: Agricultural risks typically stem from nature (weather/pests) and humans (market changes/management).
63. This involves planning the procurement and utilization of funds and controlling the financial operations to insure effective utilization of funds.
a. Farm budget
b. Marketing management
c. Financial management
d. Farm planning
e. None of the above
Explanation: Financial management specifically focuses on capital and fund acquisition/use.
64. Which of the following is not a function of management?
a. Controlling and directing the various resources
b. Management of labor
c. Methods of reducing risk in agriculture
d. Farm records
e. Management of capital
Explanation: Reducing risk is a goal or strategy, whereas the others are administrative functions/tasks.
65. In financial analysis, what is the ideal current ratio?
a. 1:1
b. 3:1
c. 2:2
d. 2:1
e. All of the above
Explanation: A current ratio of 2:1 is generally considered healthy, indicating $2 in current assets for every $1 in current liabilities.
66. The __________ variables consist of product, promotion and place.
a. marketing mix
c. marketing system
b. marketing environment
d. none of the above
Explanation: The marketing mix (4Ps) includes Product, Price, Place, and Promotion.
67. The term _____ refers to the provision of required information to the prospective customers so that they are persuaded to buy.
a. price
b. product
c. promotion
d. all of the above
Explanation: Promotion involves communication through advertising, PR, and personal selling.
68. The total amount of money that the seller, considering his objects, requires in exchange for an article or service he is selling is called:
a. interest
b. wage
c. price
d. none of the above
Explanation: Price is the monetary value assigned to a good or service.
69. The setting of prices on the basis of costs is referred to as:
a. buyer based approach
b. cost based approach
c. competition based approach
d. none of the above
Explanation: Cost-based pricing adds a markup to the cost of production to determine the price.
70. It establishes the price for a product based on the buyer’s perception of the value of the product or service.
a. Perceived value pricing
b. Loss leader pricing
c. Price lining pricing
d. none of the above
Explanation: This approach focuses on the consumer's perceived utility rather than the seller's cost.
71. It refers to an inter-organizational system made up of a set of interdependent institutions and agencies involved in the task of moving products from their point of production to the point of consumption.
a. marketing channel
b. marketing function
c. marketing middleman
d. none of the above
Explanation: Marketing channels (or distribution channels) are the paths goods take to the consumer.
72. It is the difference between what the consumer pays and what the producer receives for his agricultural produce.
a. Marketing cost
b. Marketing margin
c. Marketing charges
d. none of the above
Explanation: Marketing margin represents the portion of the retail price that covers the cost and profit of marketing services.
73. Margin expressed in terms of pesos and is constant over all quantity ranges is called:
a. absolute constant margin
b. percentage margin
c. percentage mark-up
d. none of the above
Explanation: An absolute margin stays the same regardless of volume or price fluctuations.
74. Marketing margin minus marketing costs equals:
a. charges
b. profit
c. mark-up
d. none of the above
Explanation: Margin includes both the costs incurred by the middleman and their net profit.
75. Absolute margin divided by the buying price x 100 equals:
a. percentage margin
b. percentage mark-up
c. profit
d. none of the above
Explanation: Mark-up is calculated based on the purchase price to determine the selling price.
76. It is equal to farm price plus the marketing margin of all middlemen.
a. Final retail price
b. Consumer’s price
c. Both a and b
d. none of the above
Explanation: The price paid by the final consumer includes the original farm price and all intermediary margins.
77. For every peso paid by the consumer, the share of the ______ can be computed by dividing the farm price by the final retail price.
a. farmer
b. middlemen
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Explanation: This calculation determines the "Farmer's Share" of the consumer's peso.
78. For every peso paid by the consumer, the share of the _______ can be computed by dividing the absolute margin of the middlemen by the final retail price.
a. farmer
b. middlemen
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Explanation: This determines the "Marketing Share" or the portion going to intermediaries.
79. It is the factor which considers the physical condition, heart-beat ratio and the body weight of a person when operating a machine.
a. Humanistic factor
b. Agronomic factor
c. Mechanical operation factor
d. all of the above
Explanation: Also referred to as ergonomics, these factors optimize the interface between the human worker and the machine.
80. It is part of seeder that eventually distributes seed in rows.
a. Metering device
b. Drive wheel
c. Seed hopper
d. none of the above
Explanation: The metering device is responsible for regulating the quantity and spacing of seeds being sown.
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