VOLUME 11 - AREA 1 (AGRICULTURAL AND BIOSYSTEMS POWER, ENERGY AND MACHINERY ENGINEERING AND ALLIED SUBJECTS)

VOLUME 11 - AREA 1

Question 1: The part of an engine that connects the piston and the crankshaft

A) Pin

B) Cylinder

C) Connecting rod

D) Flywheel

Explanation: The connecting rod acts as a bridge, transforming the linear motion of the piston into the rotational motion of the crankshaft.

Question 2: In 4-cylinder, 4-stroke cycle engine, how many pistons will have a power stroke in one revolution of the crankshaft?

A) One

B) Two

C) Four

D) Eight

Explanation: In a 4-stroke engine, a power stroke occurs every 2 revolutions per cylinder. For 4 cylinders, there are 2 power strokes per single revolution.

Question 3: What type of engine uses octane as its fuel?

A) Diesel engine

B) Gasoline engine

C) Compression ignition engine

D) 2-stroke cycle engine

Explanation: Octane rating is the standard measure of the performance of spark-ignition (gasoline) fuels.

Question 4: If the measurement of the windmill rotor is doubled, under ideal condition the power available is increased by how many times?

A) Twice

B) Thrice

C) Four times

D) Remains the same

Explanation: Available power is proportional to the swept area ($A = \pi r^2$). Doubling the diameter increases the area (and power) by a factor of 4.

Question 5: A 4-stroke cycle engine has four cylinders. Which of the pistons are running mates?

A) pistons 1 and 2

B) pistons 1 and 3

C) pistons 1 and 4

D) pistons 2 and 4

Explanation: In a standard inline-four engine, pistons 1 and 4 move up and down together while 2 and 3 move in the opposite direction.

Question 6: Why is it that 2-stroke cycle engines are preferred in grass/brush cutters?

A) They are lighter in weight which makes it easier to carry while operating the machine

B) Manufacturers of 2-stroke cycle engines have an exclusive contract to supply the engines for grass cutters

C) Two-stroke cycle engines are more durable than 4-stroke cycle engines

D) The fuel of the engine is more available in the rural areas

Explanation: 2-stroke engines have fewer moving parts and no oil sump, resulting in a high power-to-weight ratio ideal for handheld tools.

Question 7: If the shafts of the primemover and the machine are parallel, run in the same direction but not co-axial what power transmission system can be used?

A) Sheaves and V-belt

B) Gears

C) Universal joint

D) Direct coupling

Explanation: Belts and sheaves are specifically designed to transmit power between parallel shafts that are offset from each other.

Question 8: In most internal combustion engines, the shaft power is usually smaller than the indicated power. What causes this difference?

A) A load smaller than the available power of the engine

B) Friction losses in moving parts and power needed to operate parts such as the camshaft

C) Imperfect combustion inside the engine cylinders

D) Variation in cylinder pressure during the different events or strokes of the piston

Explanation: Indicated power is the total power generated; shaft power is what remains after mechanical friction and accessory losses are subtracted.

Question 9: It is an instrument that measures the speed of the flywheel

A) Speedmeter

B) Odometer

C) Tachometer

D) Dynamometer

Explanation: A tachometer measures the rotational speed (RPM) of a shaft or component like a flywheel.

Question 10: It is a device that prepares the desired proportion of fuel and air before the mixture is delivered to the cylinder.

A) Injection pump

B) Carburetor

C) Mixing tank

D) Intake valve

Explanation: The carburetor atomizes the fuel and mixes it with air in the correct ratio for combustion in gasoline engines.

Question 11: This refers to the space inside the engine cylinder when the piston is at its top dead center position

A) Cylinder volume

B) Clearance volume

C) Piston displacement

D) Stroke

Explanation: Clearance volume is the minimum volume remaining in the cylinder when the piston is at the highest point of its travel (TDC).

Question 12: During the intake stroke of a gasoline engine, what material is introduced in the cylinder?

A) Air

B) Fuel

C) Gasoline

D) Mixture of air and fuel

Explanation: Unlike diesel engines which intake only air, conventional gasoline engines intake a pre-mixed charge of fuel and air.

Question 13: When the first cylinder of a 4-stroke cycle engine is having its inlet stroke, what is the event in the fourth cylinder?

A) Intake

B) Compression

C) Power

D) Exhaust

Explanation: In a 1-3-4-2 firing order, if Cylinder 1 is on Intake, Cylinder 4 (the running mate) is $360^{\circ}$ degrees ahead in the Power stroke.

Question 14: This refers to the force needed to pull implements while doing field operations like plowing, harrowing and others.

A) Gravity

B) Resultant force

C) Drawbar

D) Draft

Explanation: Draft is the horizontal component of the force needed to pull an implement in the direction of travel.

Question 15: The exhaust valve of an engine opens for a total of 225 degrees rotation of the crankshaft. If it starts opening at 35 degrees before bottom dead center, what will be the position of the crankshaft when it closes?

A) 10 degrees after TDC

B) 15 degrees after TDC

C) 15 degrees before TDC

D) 20 degrees before TDC

Explanation: Total duration ($225^{\circ}$) minus the travel to TDC ($35^{\circ}$ before BBDC + $180^{\circ}$ stroke = $215^{\circ}$) leaves $10^{\circ}$ after TDC.

Question 16: The lowest pressure inside the cylinder of a 4-stroke cycle engine is observed during what event?

A) Inlet

B) Compression

C) Power

D) Exhaust

Explanation: During the inlet (intake) stroke, the piston creates a partial vacuum to suck in the charge, resulting in the cycle's lowest pressure.

Question 17: What power generating system uses non-renewable resources?

A) Hydro-electric plant

B) Coal power plant

C) Biogas plant

D) Solar energy system

Explanation: Coal is a finite fossil fuel, whereas water, biogas, and solar energy are considered renewable resources.

Question 18: Price ceiling set by the government for certain crops is aimed at assisting.

A) Middlemen

B) Producers

C) Consumers

D) Workers

Explanation: A price ceiling prevents prices from rising above a set limit, primarily to keep essential goods affordable for consumers.

Question 19: The ratio of preference shares and loan capital and loan capital to ordinary share capital is called.

A) Gearing

B) liquidity

C) Capital index

D) fluidity

Explanation: Gearing (leverage) measures the proportion of a company's fixed-interest debt/preference shares relative to its equity.

Question 20: The decline in total output, income, employment and trade, usually lasting 6 months to a year and marked by widespread contraction in many sectors of the economy.

A) Deflation

B) Recession

C) Depression

D) inflation

Explanation: A recession is a period of temporary economic decline, often defined by two consecutive quarters of negative growth.

Question 21: Among the following cost items, the one that can be classified as fixed is:

A) Raw material

B) direct labor

C) depreciation on building

D) electricity

Explanation: Fixed costs, like depreciation, do not change regardless of the quantity of goods produced.

Question 22: Among the following cost items, the one that can be classified as fixed is;

A) raw material

B) direct labor

C) depreciation on building

D) electricity

Explanation: Fixed costs remain constant over the short term regardless of output levels.

Question 23: A non-compensatory model which evaluates each alternative in the value achieved for any attribute.

A) Lexicography

B) Satisficing

C) disjunctive resolution

D) dominance

Explanation: Satisficing involves choosing the first alternative that satisfies a set of minimum requirements for all attributes.

Question 24: The process which includes sorting the products into groups of uniform kind, variety, size, quality and appearance and eliminating the unmarketable one.

A) Distributing

B) Sorting

C) Grading

D) Manufacturing

Explanation: Grading is the classification of goods according to established standards of quality, size, and appearance.

Question 25: It is the market that purchases actual supplies for future delivery used mainly for hedging insurance against losses as a result of price changes.

A) special market

B) future market

C) general market

D) permanent market

Explanation: Futures markets allow producers and buyers to lock in prices today for delivery at a future date to mitigate price risk.

Question 26: A science is concerned chiefly with the description and analysis of production, distribution and consumption is:

A) marketing

B) economics

C) management

D) demand

Explanation: Economics is the social science that studies how individuals and societies manage scarce resources.

Question 27: A term of organization that operates under a charter that is granted by a state and is endowed by this charter with certain rights and privileges.

A) Corporation

B) partnership

C) Company

D) individual ownership

Explanation: A corporation is a legal entity created by a state charter, distinct from its owners.

Question 28: What is the atomic weight of oxygen?

A) 64

B) 16

C) 32

D) 72

Explanation: The standard atomic weight of oxygen is approximately 16.00 amu.

Question 29: The inherent characteristics of tractors is to maintain or produce increased drawbar pull even if the speed is reduced.

A) Draw horsepower

B) Lugging ability

C) Mechanical efficiency

D) Coefficeint of traction

Explanation: Lugging ability refers to an engine's capacity to maintain high torque and pull even when the engine speed (RPM) drops under load.

Question 30: The accomplishment of tasks through the efficient and effective utilization of resource is ___.

A) farming

B) planning

C) economics

D) Management

Explanation: Management is the process of coordinating resources (human, financial, material) to achieve organizational goals.

Question 31: This refers to the portion of investment represented by current assets that are not capitalized less the current liabilities.

A) working capital

B) investment

C) appraisal

D) unrecovered investment balance

Explanation: Working capital is a measure of a company's liquidity, calculated as $Current Assets - Current Liabilities$.

Question 32: A decision problem in which the analyst elects to consider several possible futures, the probabilities of which can be estimated.

A) Decision under pressure

B) Decision under certainly

C) decision under uncertainly

D) decision under risk

Explanation: Decision under risk occurs when the decision-maker knows the possible outcomes and can assign probabilities to them.

Question 33: According to Engel’s Law of consumption: As the income of the family increases in amount the proportions spent for rent:

A) Decreases

B) Remains constant

C) increases then decreases

D) Increases

Explanation: Engel's Law states that as income rises, the proportion spent on food falls, while the proportion spent on housing and clothing remains relatively stable.

Question 34: The process of providing a constant supply adequate to meet consumer requirements at all times.

A) Hedging

B) Processing

C) Marketing

D) Storing

Explanation: Storage (warehousing) ensures that goods produced seasonally are available to meet consumer demand year-round.

Question 35: The term refers to markets with activities conducted on the farm.

A) Super market

B) total assembly market

C) Specially market

D) general market

Explanation: Assembly markets at the local or farm level collect small lots from various producers to create larger quantities for shipping.

Question 36: The interest rate for a stated period is equivalent to a smaller rate of interest that is more frequently compounded.

A) Rate of return

B) nominal interest rate

C) Real interest rate

D) Effective interest rate

Explanation: The effective interest rate represents the actual interest earned or paid over a year when compounding occurs more than once.

Question 37: The term refers to the summation of all the costs, both recurring and nonrecurring, related to a product, structure, system or service during its life span.

A) Bank cost

B) standard cost

C) Life-style cost

D) cash cost

Explanation: Life-cycle (or life-style) cost includes all costs from acquisition and operation through maintenance and disposal.

Question 38: A term applied to goods in a mercantile house which are kept for sale:

A) Supply

B) Commodity

C) Stock

D) Demand

Explanation: Stock (or inventory) refers to the finished goods that a business holds for sale to customers.

Question 39: This refers to a market condition in which the sellers are few and the products may either be homogeneous or differentiated.

A) Pure competition

B) Monopolistic competition

C) Oligopoly

D) Pure monopoly

Explanation: An oligopoly is a market structure dominated by a small number of large sellers.

Question 40: It is an implement attached to the tractor through a horizontal or nearby hinge axis and is partially supported by the tractor, at least during transport, but is never completely supported by the tractor.

A) trailed

B) mounted

C) semi-mounted

D) self-propelled

Explanation: Semi-mounted implements are hitched to the tractor but use their own wheels to support part of their weight.

Question 41: It is the movement of soil across a tool surface without sticking and fast enough to avoid soil build-ups.

A) sliding

B) inversion

C) shearing

D) scouring

Explanation: Scouring is the self-cleaning action of a plow or tool as it passes through the soil, preventing buildup that increases draft.

Question 42: It is a disk harrow that has one right hand gang and one left hand gang, operating in tandem.

A) tandem

B) single-acting

C) offset

D) double acting

Explanation: A tandem disk harrow consists of two or more gangs of disks where the rear gangs follow the front ones to further refine the soil.

Question 43: It is the process of randomly dropping and covering seeds in furrows to give a definite row.

A) drill seeding

B) hill dropping

C) broadcasting

D) row crop planter

Explanation: Seeding in a continuous, random stream within a furrow is known as drilling.

Question 44: It is an atomizing device for spraying in which the liquid is broken up by a high velocity gas stream.

A) hydraulic

B) centrifugal

C) gas

D) low velocity jet breakup

Explanation: Pneumatic (gas) atomizers use high-velocity air/gas to shear the liquid into fine droplets.

Question 45: The plow normally turns the furrow slice on the right but this plow has three functions to turn the furrow slice both side

A) tandem plow

B) 2-way plow

C) middle breaker

D) rotary plow

Explanation: A two-way plow allows furrows to be turned in the same direction regardless of which way the tractor is moving.

Question 46: This is the type of the moldboard plow bottom which has a long, low moldboard with a gradual twist (spiral) that completely inverts the furrow slice with a minimum of a breakup, thus covering the vegetative matter thoroughly.

A) sod bottom

B) stubble moldboard

C) slat moldboard

D) backland moldboard

Explanation: Sod bottoms are designed to turn over tough, unbroken pasture or sod without crumbling it.

Question 47: It is a harvesting machine that permits the removal of grain directly from the panicle without cutting or uprooting of plants

A) reaper

B) stripper

C) combine

D) windrower

Explanation: Strippers harvest only the grain or heads, leaving the straw/stalks standing in the field.

Question 48: What comprises synthesis gas or producers gas?

A) CH4 and H2

B) CO and H2

C) H2 and O2

D) CO2 and H2

Explanation: Synthesis gas (syngas) is primarily a mixture of Carbon Monoxide and Hydrogen.

Question 49: It is a thermal process done in the absence of oxidant. It is also called destructive distillation.

A) destruction

B) gasification

C) combustion

D) pyrolysis

Explanation: Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of organic material using heat in the absence of oxygen.

Question 50: An example of a gasifier.

A) Downdraft

B) Indian Gobar

C) Darrieus

D) Chinese dome

Explanation: Downdraft, Updraft, and Cross-draft are the three main types of fixed-bed gasifiers.

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